I think the idea is not that the comment section is full of nothing but sockpuppeting Techdirt staff, but that these accounts with the "zombie" posting patterns (which, by the nature of those posting patterns, are a small minority of all commenters) are sockpuppeting Techdirt staff.
Still an unreasonable conclusion given the plausibility of the available alternatives (the main two of which you cite), but at least doesn't lead to the "if you're right, you're raising the alarm to nobody but yourself" fork-twist.
Surname overlap.
I read "I'm not familiar with the text of the law that you're talking about" not as meaning "I don't know of any text in that law which says what you're talking about", but as meaning "I'm not familiar with what that law says, so I don't know whether it says what you're talking about". I can see room for the interpretation you mention, now that you've pointed it out and if I squint, but it's not at all obvious either that that is the correct interpretation (the one that Zuckerberg intended) or the one that e.g. Ted Cruz would take away from hearing it. As to what he should have said instead, "I don't know of any text in that law which says what you're talking about" would seem sufficient. Now, it's possible that there's no way he could have expressed that sentiment clearly without it being clear that he's saying "you're wrong", because that's exactly what that is saying - and that's exactly why I disagree that "you're wrong" is not an option. When a member of Congress says something that is blatantly untrue, it's just as legitimate to tell them that as it would be to do so with anyone else. (Alternatively, a request for clarification - "could you point me to the text in that statute which contains the language which imposes that requirement?", or something like that - might have gotten the job done, but would be at risk of seeming like just a passive-aggressive or condescending way of saying "you're wrong", and that's likely to result in a worse impression than just saying "you're wrong" up-front.)
I'm reasonably sure that the people who are reporting problems with such images not loading (properly) are using NoScript or similar, are being passive-aggressive about the fact that Websites which don't have an inherent need to be dynamic should work properly (at a basic level) without JavaScript, and are attempting to hint that giving sites which don't respect that principle a benefit by linking to them is something which should perhaps be avoided.
I use NoScript myself, and wouldn't allow scripting from such a site just for the purpose of loading images (although I might manually edit page source in Firebug, or potentially do it less-manually with Greasemonkey, to enable myself to view a particular image) - but I haven't followed the links in question, and would have been unlikely to speak up here about the matter anyway. (Although knowing that the linked-to site does have that problem is something that's useful to me.)
Where do you get the idea that the author (of the article, I'm presuming, so Karl Bode) thinks that either of those things is a "natural monopoly"? Re your last line: a natural monopoly cannot be created, it can only be brought from irrelevance into relevance (by the advent of new technology that makes a previously-irrelevant bottleneck valuable), worked around (while it's relevant), or made obsolete (by the advent of new technology which renders the previous bottleneck irrelevant). If it was created, it's not a natural monopoly.
The best way to express that is to vote for a write-in candidate, even (possibly especially) a joke or otherwise nonexistent candidate. Just not voting at all means you aren't counted towards the total which defines "majority", so both of the candidates have an easier time winning, and it looks as if they both have more support (as a fraction of the electorate) than they actually do.
(My brother refuses to vote not because he doesn't want to support any of the candidates in the race - although he often may not - but because he refuses to legitimize the system, which he considers to be so badly broken as to be irreparable from within, by participating in it.)
One other possibly important difference in the case of porn: none of the participants in the sexual act are paying to do it, they're all being paid, by a non-participant. I don't know if the law specifically recognizes that as an important difference, but I suspect that it may.
(Of course, that would just bring up the question of someone who's enough of a voyeurism fetishist to pay other people to have sex with each other just so he(?) can watch without participating, but I imagine there would be caveats in the law to account for that.)
I do recall reading something a while back whose gist was that people had tried to put a veneer of legality over prostitution exactly by using the "see, a camera! we're making porn!" defense, and it didn't work out.
Not quite. What con men do is winning their customers' trust. Earning it is another matter altogether.
Predicted reaction of SESTA's supporters:
"See? They couldn't bring any sex-trafficking charges against Backpage! This proves that we need SESTA, so that we can hold these people to account for their role in sex trafficking!"
I think the position he's attempting to argue is something like "any forum which is open to posting (or other relevant participation) from members of the general public, rather than only from members of a defined group, is by definition a public forum, and it's long-established that the First Amendment strictly limits the placing of restrictions on speech in any public forum".
(Examples of a "members of a defined group only" forum would include e.g. a company-internal mailing list, or a discussion-forum Website where only people with accounts can post and you only get an account with the direct approval of the site's moderators, or suchlike.)
Where that fails is in the fact that "public forum" as the term is used in First Amendment jurisprudence has its own definition, which is quite distinct from the one which he appears to subscribe to (and which I've attempted to paraphrase above); the mismatch between those definitions renders the conclusions he reaches invalid.
Er... where do you get "I didn't vote at all" from "I didn't vote in any of the current officeholders"?
I think it's considerably more likely that the person voted for someone else, who then lost the election.
(Another possibility is that the person wasn't eligible to vote, but that seems unlikely in this instance.)
It's not quite that simple; if people vote on things they don't know about, or possibly even don't understand, that doesn't help and may in fact make things worse. A mandate that everyone vote (which I understand exists in some countries) would not necessarily be a good thing even in terms of outcomes, never mind individual freedom.
The current status quo in voting participation, however, is well short of even "everyone who knows what they're voting for or against actually does vote", much less "everyone, even people who have no idea what the issues are, votes" - so getting more people to actually bother to vote would indeed do a great deal to help the situation.
ECA, is that you? Did you forget to log in?
Actually, it specifically states "sound card functions", i.e., the functions provided by a sound card.
Those functions are still present even if what provides them is integrated hardware rather than an add-in board.
The real question is whether the fact that the company being sued does not control the hardware which includes such a device is enough to insulate them from liability, when considered vs. the fact that their software system cannot meaningfully do anything useful without such a device being present at some point in the pipeline.
I'd probably be inclined to decide that it is, but I can see how others (especially the less technically savvy and/or rigidly legalistically minded) might decide otherwise.
Well, the thrust of it is more "if people hear the twisted version of what we're doing that the EFF tries to present, they will be scared into giving the EFF money to help stop us from doing it".
The premise that the EFF's version is twisting the truth rather than representing it honestly is the point of dispute.
"Underpaid patent office" != "underpaid patent officers".
The suggestion is that the patent office itself does not have enough money to pay enough people to process patents thoroughly enough (that ones which should be rejected always do get rejected, and ones which shouldn't don't) while still doing so quickly enough to avoid having an oversized backlog.
Why do you object to the use of elision to avoid the need to type "the Trump administration's FCC" every time one wants to distinguish between the current incarnation of the FCC and one or more of the previous incarnations thereof?
(Nit: "copyrighted", or "under copyright", or "covered by copyright".
The only thing that is literally copyright is copyright itself.)
That's a very interesting question; I can see arguments being made in both directions. If there have been any court cases on that point, I'd be interested to learn of them. (A quick Google search on naive terms didn't find anything that seems relevant.)
But not before someone tries to question you.
(Also, requesting footage doesn't mean you'll get it, much less get it in advance of questioning - whereas under this rule an accused cop would be explicitly entitled to it.)
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