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  • Jun 10th, 2009 @ 9:43am

    So have I paid the royalty?

    If the company is claiming to directly be passing on the costs of the royalty payments to the consumer then does logic not dictate that the consumer is paying for the royalty as well as the service? And if that's the case could we then just record music from the radio and use it as we please, because we've already paid for the royalty to listen to the music in the first place?

    I'm sure this idea is too simple for an RIAA lawyer to understand, but I thought it was one worth pointing out.