If you are not getting the answer that you so desperately have wanted for the last 4 years then you sure haven't been asking the right question for 4 years. Hilarious.
No, I think the simple explanation is that Mike doesn't want to admit his personal beliefs on this issue. The amount of weaseling and the anger the question elicits tells me I'm hitting a sore spot. What's he hiding? Why won't he just tell us what he believes? Hmmm... This really isn't hard. But keep making excuses for him. He certainly appreciates it.
Not as hilarious as the excuses and reasons that you come out with. Priceless!
Please present these "excuses and reasons" that I've "come out with." I'll address your questions directly and honestly. Nice try, though. I'm sure Mike appreciates the help.
Translation: Show me where Mike says God exists or doesn't exist. You can't.
Mike has no problem whatsoever in giving us a definitive answer about his view as to criminal infringement. I'm not asking him to prove the existence of God, I'm just asking him also to give us his opinion of civil infringement. Keep making excuses. Mike appreciates it, I'm sure!
Your continued insistance on a black or white, yes or no answer reminded me of something
When have I ever demanded that the answer be "black or white"? Mike's answer for criminal infringement is black and white: "Copyright should never be a criminal issue at all." I don't know if his answer for civil infringement is also black and white, nor do I care. I just want the answer, and it can be as black, white, or gray as it takes so that we all have the answer. Keep coming up with excuses! In the meantime, I'll keep pointing out the obvious fact that Mike refuses to give us his opinion, no matter what color it is.
Is there any patent Mike wouldn't be happy to see declared invalid? I know, I know... He'll never tell.
Please read the articles referenced previously and you will find your answer (it isn't be a monosyllabic answer so you may not understand it).
If you think you've located the answer, then just tell us what the answer is. You can't.
You don't deserve answers. You'll figure this one one day.
I love all the excuses. He's already answered. You don't deserve an answer. He'd answer if somebody other than you were asking. But we never ever get is the answer. Hilarious.
He has expressed it. Many times. Just because his actual position is not your preferred one that allows you to attack him, that doesn't mean it hasn't been stated.
I'll ask you the same thing I ask everybody who claims this. If he's answered it so many times, as you contend, then it should be easy for you to tell me what his answer is: Does Mike think that copyright should be a civil matter "at all"?
And guess what tool they're using to block you from actually owning the products you bought? Why copyright, of course. It's yet another example of how copyright is often used to block property rights rather than to create them.
If what you've bought is a license, then how are you not getting what you've bought? Nor do I understand how this blocks property rights. If somebody's bought only a license, then what property rights of theirs are being blocked? Your definition of blocked seems to be that somebody can't enforce right they don't actually have. I thought you liked reality. And how does copyright not create property rights? It creates them in the copyright owner. I know you hate this fact. But it's still reality.
That's right. He's been dodging taking a definitive position on this for years. He's obviously capable of forming opinions ("Copyright should never be a criminal issue at all."). Yet, he won't tell us what his opinion is on whether it should ever be a civil matter "at all." The fact that he avoids discussing this issue should tell you something.
It's a simple question. He has no trouble in the post stating a definitive position: "Copyright should never be a criminal issue at all." He's not so "agnostic" that he couldn't express an opinion about that. I just wonder if he also thinks that copyright should never be a civil issue at all. I don't see why he can't express an opinion about that too.
We already know all your tactics AJ. They didn't work the last time you were here. They won't work now.
Can we just get it over with and fast forward to the point where you just make barnyard animal noises?
You only have two modes of operation here. Abusive troll. Or, retarded troll pretending to be a cow or a chicken.
I think instead I'll continue to be one of the only people on TD who engages on matters substantively and directly, and I'll continue to point out that Mike is too scared to ever take a definitive position on this issue. I don't think I'm an "abusive troll" to point out that I think Mike is dishonest about his views on infringement. If he wants to clear the air and let us all know what he truly believes, he could have the matter cleared up quite quickly. But he doesn't want that. Hmmm...
And back to time out for you AJ, while you're there, you can question your make believe Mike and maybe get the answers you so desperately want.
There's nothing "make believe" about it. Mike will not answer this question, nor any question like it. Ask him yourself.
y u no debate me?
I'm just asking Mike's opinion. I think the more apt question is why Mike can't ever take a definitive position when it comes to such things. I mean, he's such an honest guy, and he values truth and journalistic integrity so much. So what's the hold-up?
Yeah, let's take a very complex topic and break it down to a simple "yes or no" choice. There's no right answer to your question because you ignore all the other possible positions. This is the same as asking an agnostic "do you believe in God or not? You either believe He exists or you don't!" It ignores that there are other options.
In your question, what is your definition of infringement? Is it the current law's definition of infringement? What if Mike belived there should be civil penalties for infringement, but that current law considers uses to be infringing that he believes should not be considered infringement? Is he then for or against?
It also assumes that infringement is inherently something that needs recourse. This is not necessarily true, yet your question requires him to respond in a black-and-white way to a question with a large amount of complexity and variation in the way you answer.
It's not that Mike isn't clear on his positions, it's just that you're apparently so focused on your assumptions that you can't see them. He may respond, or he may never read what you wrote because he might have other things he's doing rather than reading every comment on every article here.
Either way your question isn't answerable because it assumes a shallow understanding of the topics at hand.
Um, wow. I'm talking about acts that are actually civil infringement under the actual law. I'm not saying "that infringement is inherently something that needs recourse," I'm asking Mike if he believes that such acts should be subject to any civil recourse. If you believe that it's untrue "that Mike isn't clear on his positions," then please tell me what you think you think Mike's position is as to recourse for civil infringement. And please tell me why you think that. The notion that my "question isn't answerable" is total nonsense. Mike is able to form an opinion about criminal infringement. I just want his opinion on civil infringement whatever it may be, and with whatever nuances and subtleties he thinks are proper. This isn't hard.
What does this mean? If the trademark holder was unable to stop the use of someone else selling a related good from using their mark then what would have been the point?
It used to be that a markholder only had rights over the use of his mark for the SAME good. Now that confusion is the test, the markholder has control over the use of his mark for related goods. The classic example here is the Aunt Jemima case. Aunt Jemima sold pancake mix. Another company decided to sell pancake syrup using the Aunt Jemima name. Under the traditional property view of marks, this would have been OK since the markholder for the mix didn’t sell syrup. But the court decided that there could be confusion since the goods were related, and it found infringement. That’s an expansion of trademark rights based on confusion.
Fair enough. but it still shows congresses original attempt to pass these laws under a section of the constitution intended to serve a public good.
Yet, it says nothing about trademark law as it developed in England and then in state common and statutory law. Moreover, whether it’s based on the Copyright and Patent Clause or not, it’s seen as promoting the public good. All property rights promote the public good—not just those that derive from Clause 8 of Section 8 of Article I.
From Wikipedia
"From this shared starting point, social contract theorists seek to demonstrate, in different ways, why a rational individual would voluntarily consent to give up his or her natural freedom to obtain the benefits of political order."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Social_contract
The government protects both natural and civil rights. Take, for example, the First Amendment. There is a natural right to free speech, but we have a constitutional amendment that explicitly protects it.
Natural rights/freedoms are not something that can be granted by government. IP requires government. It requires government to take away a natural freedom/right that I have in nature, namely, the right to freely copy as I please. This right exists in nature absent government and is thus a natural right. IP is not a natural right for the very reason that government is required to enact it. At least not by any reasonable definition of natural right. To argue otherwise is to dishonestly pervert the definition of a natural right to mean something other than what most people consider it to mean. By the law of nature (as Thomas Jefferson says) I can freely copy anything I please and property belongs to whoever currently possesses it. Property rights are an act of government and not a result of natural rights. and like other laws (including property laws) IP should only be intended to serve the public interest.
Most jurists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries subscribed to a natural law theory of property. Under Roman natural law, the first person to take possession of an object has a claim to it. As Locke later reasoned, people have a claim to the fruits of their labors under natural law. That the law explicitly prescribes the property interest doesn’t detract from the fact that these prescriptions are based in natural law. There’s been tons written about this over the past three centuries. I suggest you do some Googling.
You only consider IP to be a natural right because you're using a different definition of natural right than the rest of us. You don't get to just make up your own definition of the word 'natural right' because you don't like the definition everyone else uses and then claim that IP is a natural right. That's not how you get taken seriously. It's a quick way to be thought of as dishonest.
No offense, but your understanding appears to be based upon a quick read of a Wikipedia entry. Again, I suggest you read some academic writings on the subject. I would also suggest that you not jump to the conclusion that I’m being “dishonest” because you either don’t understand what I’m saying or don’t agree with me.
Nature does not grant you the privilege to prevent others from copying. Animals may copy each other or even humans and learn from each other. To copy from each other is something nature grants us. Copying is natural. Any government restrictions on nature is a restriction of our natural right. IP requires government and is a government restriction on natural rights.
You’re looking at it from the wrong perspective. Under natural law, one is entitled to the fruits of his labor. When an author labors to create a book, he has a property right in the book consistent with natural law. I’m grossly oversimplifying things, but that’s the gist.
Madison, who in Federalist 43 gave us his insight on the Copyright and Patent Clause, subscribed to the natural law view:
A power "to promote the progress of science and useful arts, by securing, for a limited time, to authors and inventors, the exclusive right to their respective writings and discoveries."It’s a “right of common law” in Great Britain because it follows from natural law. And he thinks patents do as well, “with equal reason.”
The utility of this power will scarcely be questioned. The copyright of authors has been solemnly adjudged, in Great Britain, to be a right of common law. The right to useful inventions seems with equal reason to belong to the inventors. The public good fully coincides in both cases with the claims of individuals. The States cannot separately make effectual provisions for either of the cases, and most of them have anticipated the decision of this point, by laws passed at the instance of Congress.
There's a real trend here. According to the latest numbers, Twitter does not comply with nearly 1 in 4 takedown notices it receives; Wikimedia complies with less than half; and WordPress complies with less than two-thirds. Each organization explains in its report that the notices with which they don't comply are either incomplete or abusive.
Parker--
How many, or what percentage, of the notices are abusive, as opposed to merely incomplete? That number would be a lot more useful.
Even if you absolutely hate The Pirate Bay and think it's the worst thing that's ever happened to the entertainment industry (a ridiculous view, but nonetheless...), the idea that the legal recourse against it should have been criminal, rather than civil charges, is mind-boggling.
Hey Mike--
Do you think that there should be any civil recourse against infringers? You have no problem whatsoever in claiming that you think there shouldn't be criminal recourse, so obviously you are able to form opinions on the matter. Please, let us know, directly and honestly, whether you think there should be any civil recourse against those who infringe. I'm not asking whether you think, given that there is some recourse, that recourse should be civil and not criminal. I'm asking whether you think there should be any civil recourse against infringers, all weasel words aside.
I look forward to your direct and honest answer--though I doubt very much there will be one. It's one thing to say that you think the recourse should never be criminal. But it's quite another thing to say that you think any civil recourse is appropriate. Assuming you do answer, which I'm almost positive you won't (as you refuse to ever be pinned down on a position), please explain why you think (or don't think) any civil recourse is appropriate. Thanks.
Which is exactly the point. If the primary purpose of trademark law was to prevent consumer confusion then it makes sense that trademark law was narrower than it is today because it doesn't need to be any broader than what's necessary to prevent consumer confusion. The author is trying to state an opinion against the evidence that goes against that opinion.
His point is that when trademarks were seen as simply property rights, the rights were narrower. It’s only when consumer confusion became the focus that the rights broadened. For example, under the property view, a markholder only had rights in his actual uses of the mark. The modern focus on confusion, instead of actual use, gives us things like the related goods doctrine, where the markholder controls uses of the mark for goods the markholder doesn’t actually sell. So the irony is that the move away from property accounts for the expansion.
and we're trying to discuss the original purpose of trademark law (at least in the U.S.).
What do the Founders have to do with that?
Fair enough. First of all it doesn't directly mention it as a natural right. Natural rights, by definition, don't come from government. They're rights that we try to prevent government from taking away (at least certain natural rights, not necessarily all of them). IP comes from government and so isn't a natural right because it doesn't meet the definition.
People form governments to protect their civil and natural rights. Neither is self-executing. You should read up on social contract theory.
That is trademark law is derived from the portion of the law in the constitution intended to promote the progress and serve a public interest. The primary beneficiaries are the public. Yes, protecting the legal right of the mark holder is a purpose (as the quotes you give suggest) but only as a means to the end of serving the public interest.
You’re completely misreading the opinion in the Trade-Mark Cases. The Supreme Court struck down the federal trademark statutes because Congress DID NOT have the authority to enact them under the Copyright and Patent Clauses. The Court left open the possibility that the Commerce Clause could support a federal trademark statute, if it conformed to the narrower understanding of the Commerce Clause that existed at the time. Congress did just that. So, no, you can’t point to the Copyright and Patent Clauses and deduce anything about trademarks.
Re: Re:
It destroys them. My right to copy as I please is a property right.
How do you have any property rights in a work that didn't exist before someone else created it?
I have the right to modify my property the way I see fit based on the configuration of the property of others. It's a natural right. I never agreed not to copy someone else or 'pirate' their product. It's an act of government that imposes these restrictions on my property rights telling me what I may or may not do with my property.
You never agreed to not throw rocks at my windshield, yet your doing so violates my property rights, not yours.
The whole idea that you should have to 'buy' a license in the first place is what's misleading/misdirecting. I shouldn't have to buy a license, it's my right to freely copy as I please. Anything contrary to that is an artificial act of government abridging my property rights to do what I want with my property.
Who says you have to buy a license? You can choose to buy a license or not. But the reality is that if you choose to buy a license, you've bought a license.
Though I'm sure you will still dishonestly claim that copy protection laws are natural rights despite the fact that they don't meet the definition and despite the fact that even many of the sources you cite disagree with you.
What sources disagree with me? Please be specific.