In this case, the question is whether a foreign-run website can prove that it both did not know and *should not know* that it was posting materials which infringed upon American copyrights.
There is no such thing as an ?international copyright? that will automatically protect an author?s writings throughout the world. Protection against unauthorized use in a particular country depends on the national laws of that country.
Copyright is not a constitutional right. Article I gives Congress the right to grant copyrights. So, while congress? authority to grant copyrights is grounded in the Constitution, it is not a right guaranteed to the copyright holder by the Constitution. You can hardly equate free speech with copyright. Well, you can. But you?d be wrong.
However, if your argument is that the expense is an effective use of their advertising budget, I agree.
It would be worth it if the Army's car had a gunner.
You mean it transfers money to host communities from the surrounding areas. It's a broken windows fallacy to say that the same money wouldn't be spent elsewhere.
He truly has gone over to the Dark Side.
Your confusion is understandable. It's an American thing.
"I would rather be exposed to the inconveniencies attending too much liberty than to those attending too small a degree of it." -Thomas Jefferson-
Your point is well taken. However, whether the recordings were authorized or not, the domain seizure constitutes a restriction on speech. So once again, we?re back to the nature of the activity that drew the warrants: speech.
For what it?s worth: I marked this as funny.
What I am saying is that that as an American, I would have liked to have seen people accused of unlawful activity have a chance to confront the charges before having property (real or otherwise) seized, or their businesses shut down. The fact that a law enforcement officer can attest to infringement, giving no specific details, and a judge will then sign an order to seize domains is troubling to me. It sounds as though you have no issue with that. At least, not as big an issue as with someone infringing on copyright.
You ignored what I wrote. If you can't grasp the concepts, just say so.
These thieves should all be ashamed of themselves for stealing each other?s ideas.
This is theft! And murder! And genocide!
Anyone who disagrees is simply a denier, and should be ashamed of himself.
How would a Massage defense manifest any element of protected expression? There's an obvious difference between a defense that involves distributing information and one that involves refuting penetration?
But Arcara was only constitutional because "the sexual activity carried on in this case manifests absolutely no element of protected expression."Are you saying the above is mischaracterization? That the court did not look at the type of charge and whether it was reasonably defensible under a free speech claim?
It's AJ's guarantee of quality: Personal attacks every 10 posts, or your pizza's free.
The "error rate" in the patent system is lower than the error rate for heart surgeons.
AJ says:
Real property is real estate. Look at 18 U.S.C. 985(b)(1)(B) where it speaks of "the owners or occupants of the real property shall not be evicted . . . ."
Domain names are intangible, personal property. Google it.
...So we're back where we started. But even if you don't believe that domain names are "real property," RuleG(b) explicitly states this: (b) Notice to Known Potential Claimants. (i) Direct Notice Required. The government must send notice of the action and a copy of the complaint to any person who reasonably appears to be a potential claimant on the facts known to the government before the end of the time for filing a claim under Rule G(5)(a)(ii)(B).And then AJ says?
The notice requirement is for after the forfeiture action has been filed. Your claim that this procedure "has not been followed" is simply wrong.I need some help understanding this: ?before the end of the time for filing a claim under Rule G(5)(a)(ii)(B).?
Ok. So going back to Karl's comment: What does your response have to do with whether or not one can claim fair use as a defense? You're acknowledging that fair use exists, and you're acknowledging that it's not infringement. Why is that not a defense.
Maybe I?m missing something?
I?m going to go find out what "manifests an element" means.
It sure is. However, in America, we have trials to determine if that's what happened. To put it another way, alleged copyright infringement is not any kind of crime.
Presumption of innocence is not a sometimes food; you cannot cast it off whenever you find it inconvenient.
"If it was, then every criminal would make sure to include some example of legitimate speech in the commission of his crime, so he could say 'sorry, you can't bust me because you'll be violating my first amendment rights.'"
That's a cute little straw baby you've got there. Watch this...
If it was, then every criminal would make sure to include some example of legitimate speech in the commission of his crime, so he could say "sorry, you can't just seize the instruments of my speech without arresting me or offering me an adversarial hearing before a court, or you'll be violating my first amendment rights.
There. Fixed it for you.
It?s almost as though you manufacture these silly arguments on purpose to avoid a real discussion. Weird...
?When incidental examples of protected speech are affected in the midst of illegal activity, it does not constitute a First Amendment violation.?
Do you mean alleged illegal activity, or are trials and stuff just silly annoyances to you?
?No. The First Amendment does not trump copyright law.?
Why would it? If the framers had wanted it to have some power they would have given it a higher number, like, say, 52. Surely the first amendment can?t be as strong a force as a reluctantly included clause. That would just be whacked!
?When political candidates try to use music for their campaign themes without permission, they are sued and forced to stop.?
I haven?t been around that long so I may lack the historical perspective needed to see your point; has a political candidate ever defended the use of a song as necessary to some political commentary. I don?t recall Bob Dole saying anything substantive about ?I?m a Dole Man.? You might as well have said, ?When proprietors of drinking establishments try to play unlicensed music for customers, they are sued and forced to stop.?
*constitutionally protected*
You keep using that phrase. I do not think it means what you think it means.