I'm confused about something. Was this image registered with the copyright office before the infringement took place or after? I would be surprised if a photographer of a wedding reception would register all of their pictures for every client the shoot images of.
If she registered after the fact isn't it too late to bring on a federal copyright suit? Doesn't the registration need to be done before the infringement?
Just curious I am however on the side of those guys and pro gay marriage, just wondering about the semantics of the law here.
Correct me if I'm wrong but didn't the supreme court already say in Dastar Corp. v. Twentieth Century Fox Film Corp. (et al., 540 US 806 (2003) that a trademarks cannot be used to try to force a perpetual copyright, when a copyright does not exist or has expired???
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