We've already written about how a former PR exec
from what became AT&T has been outed as the guy who sent a letter to the FCC where he forgot to take out the boilerplate XYZ Organization
that was almost certainly left there by the AT&T lobbyists who wrote the letter for him. However, one of our commenters
noted that MediaPost spoke to the guy, Bob Sells, who insists that he wrote the letter with the XYZ part included
Sells, a 77-year-old retired public relations executive in Little Rock, tells MediaPost that he often writes letters with placeholders and fills in the correct text later, but overlooked the reference to XYZ in this case.
Really? I'm really trying to give this guy the benefit of the doubt, but I can't come up with a single explanation for why he would write "XYZ Organization" when writing a letter himself from a group of people he supposedly represents. If you're the one writing the letter, on behalf of your supposed organization, why would you include "XYZ Organization"?