There Is No Such Thing As Anonymized Data, Google

from the barely-appeasing dept

With the news out that Google and Viacom have come to an agreement to "anonymize" the data a judge ordered Google to hand over, it's worth remembering a simple, but important statement: there's no such thing as a truly anonymized dataset. While it may protect some users, it's still likely to reveal some users and what they surfed. Given all of this, it's still quite unclear why Viacom needs this data in the first place. The legal question is whether Google infringed on copyright. Why should Google's log files be necessary to determine that?
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Filed Under: anonymized data, logfiles
Companies: google, viacom, youtube

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  1. identicon
    Brooks, 16 Jul 2008 @ 1:19am

    Re: Re: Re: It's called a subpoena

    What law school did you go to, again? Because they seem to have a fairly shoddy program, in that they have miseducated you about IP laws *and* didn't manage to train you out of the childish habit of name-calling.

    Fact is, if Google systematically posted copyrighted content, or turned a blind eye to an employee doing so, there could be serious repercussions. But you've taken that fact and extrapolated out so far that it's just silly.

    Also, DMCA protections don't exist in some concrete sense; they can't be revoked in general. In any particular case, they can be attacked, as when the plaintiff alleges that the defendant was acting as more than a conduit and host for the material in question. Which, absolutely, is what this case is about. But even if Viacom wins, it doesn't ean Googel in general loses all benefit of the DMCA safe harbor provisions. It just doesn't work that way.

    Please do let us all know what law school you graduated from. 'Cause I, for one, am never working with anyone who went there.

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