I'm just curious about this response. I've seen a couple reports in the mainstream media that Richard Dawkins is an "agnostic". It's pretty clear, after reading, that none of the authors have ever read any of Dawkins' books, or anything more than the most basic summary.
But to accuse him of being a gnostic, an adherent to one of the mystery religions prominent around the east and south regions of the Mediterranean basin in the second and third century C.E., that believes in secret knowledge delivered by divine forces... that seems beyond the pale. What evidence do you have to accuse him of such ... outright, frank irrationality?